RESEARCH METHODOLOGY MCQs WITH ANSWER KEY
Questions no 51 to
200
Q. 51
Which of the following is not a contrast between quantitative and qualitative research?
a) Distance vs. proximity of researcher to participants
b) Generalization vs. contextual understanding
c) Hard, reliable data vs. rich, deep data
d) Interpretivist vs. feminist
Q. 52
Why has qualitative research been seen to have an affinity with feminism?
a) It allows women's voices to be heard, rather than objectifying and exploiting them
b) It has always been carried out by female sociologists
c) It allows the researcher to control variables and suppress women's voices
d) It claims to be value free and non-political
Q. 53
Probability sampling is rarely used in qualitative research because:
a) Qualitative researchers are not trained in statistics
b) It is very old-fashioned
c) It is often not feasible
d) Research Questions are more important than sampling
Q. 54
The two levels of sampling used by Savage et al. (2005) for the Manchester study were:
a) Random and purposive
b) Convenience and snowball
c) Statistical and non-statistical
d) Contexts and participants
Q. 55
Which of the following is not a type of purposive sampling?
a) Probability sampling
b) Deviant case sampling
c) Theoretical sampling
d) Snowball sampling
Q. 56
What is involved in "purposive sampling" for grounded theory?
a) Using a random numbers table to select a representative sample of people
b) Strategically selecting respondents who are likely to provide relevant data
c) Deciding on a sampling strategy early on and pursuing it relentlessly
d) Sampling units of time rather than individual persons
Q. 57
What is meant by the term "theoretical saturation"?
a) Deciding on a theory and then testing it repeatedly
b) The point at which a concept is so well developed that no further data collection is necessary
c) The problem of having used too many theories in one's data analysis
d) A state of frustration caused by having used every possible statistical test without finding any
significant results
Q. 58
Generic purposive sampling can be characterized as being:
a) Fixed and a priori
b) Fixed and ad-hoc
c) Contingent and post-hoc
d) Contingent and ad infinitum
Q. 59
The minimum sample size for qualitative interviewing is:
a) 30 b) 31
c) 60 d) It's hard to say
Q. 60
Why is an ethnographic study unlikely to use a probability sample?
a) Because the aim of understanding is more important than that of generalization
b) Because the researcher cannot control who is willing to talk to them
c) Because it is difficult to identify a sampling frame
d) All of the above
Q. 61
Apart from people, what else can purposive sampling be used for?
a) Documents b) Timing of events
c) Context d) All of the above
Q. 62
What can be generalized from a purposive sample?
a) That the findings are true for broadly similar cases
b) That the findings are true for the entire population
c) That the opposite is true for people who are the opposite of those in the sample
d) That purposive sampling is better than probability sampling
Q. 63
What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is your
currentage?”
1-5
5-10
10-20
20-30
30-40
a) The categories are not mutually exclusive
b) The categories are not exhaustive
c) Both a and b are problems
d) There is no problemwith the above set of response categories
Q. 64
According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking place when?
a) In the past (retrospective questions)
b) In the present (current time questions)
c) In the future (prospective questions)
d) All of the above
Q. 65
Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?
a) Consider using multiple methods when measuringabstractconstructs
b) Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs
c) Avoid double-barreled questions
d) All of the above
e)Only b and c
Q. 66
Which of the seisnota method of data collection.
a) Questionnaires b) Interviews
c) Experiments d) Observations
Q. 67
Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?
a) Official documents b) Personal documents
c) Archived research data d) All of the above
Q. 68
An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their response is
called a .
a) Response set b) Probe
c) Semantic differential d) Contingency question
Q. 69
Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?
a) Primary data b) Secondary data
c) Experimental data d) Field notes
Q. 70
Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statements is true?
a) Open-ended questions directly providequantitative data based on the researcher’s
predetermined response categories
b) Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words
c) Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words
d) Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data inthe participants’ own words
Q. 71
Open-ended questions provide primarily data
a) Confirmatory data b) Qualitative data
c) Predictive ata d) None of the above
Q. 72
Which of the following is true concerning observation?
a) It takes less time than self-report approaches
b) It costs less money than self-report approaches
c) It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they do
d) All of the above
Q. 73
When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:
a. A non random sampling method b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample d. An Equal probability selection method
Q. 74
Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within each ethnic group at
random.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to pick
cases from the table.
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.
Q. 75
Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?
a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough subgroup
samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
Q. 76
Which of the following statements are true?
a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample
needed
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample
needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval
Q. 77
Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the original
sampling?
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1
b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond
Q. 78
Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Proportional stratified sampling
d. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique e. All of the above are EPSEM
Q. 79
Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?
a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all forms of non random sampling
Q. 80
Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample
Q. 81
Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?
a. Simple random sampling b. Systematic sampling
c. Quota sampling d. Purposive sampling
Q. 82
Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling
Q. 83
How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?
a. Every year b. Every five years
c. Every ten years d. Twice a year
Q. 84
People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method
called
a. Simple random sampling b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling d. Convenience sampling
Q. 85
Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the appropriate
sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience samples from
those groups?
a. Proportional stratified sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. One-stage cluster sampling
d. Two-stage cluster sampling
Q. 86
In which of the following non random sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research
participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball b. Convenience
c. Purposive d. Quota
Q. 87
Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your chapter?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Proportional stratified sampling
c. Cluster random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
Q. 88
If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender, and then
took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the .
a. Independent variable b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable d. Sampling variable
Q. 89
A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the population is called which of the following?
a. A datum b. A statistic
c. A parameter d. A population
Q. 90
The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called .
a. Sampling without replacement
b. Sampling with replacement
c. Simple random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
Q. 91
Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?
a. Cluster sampling b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling
Q. 92
Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its efficiency?
a. One stage cluster sampling b. Simple random sampling
c. Two stage cluster sampling d. Quota sampling
Q. 93
A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called .
a. Cluster sampling b. One-stage sampling
c. Two-stage sampling d. Probability proportional to size or PPS
Q. 94
The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as .
a. Sampling b. Census
c. Survey research d. None of the above
Q. 95
It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the population size is of what size?
a. 500 or less b. 100 or less
c. 1000 or less d. you should always use a sample
Q. 96
Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?
a. Purposive b. Quota
c. Convenience d. Cluster
Q. 97
Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if
you are interested in making statements about the larger population?
a. Convenience sampling b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling d. Random sampling
Q. 98
is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.
a. Sample b. Population
c. Statistic d. Element
Q. 99
Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?
a. Simple Random Sampling
b. Stratified Random Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Cluster sampling
Q. 100
The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called .
a. Convenience sampling b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling d. Snowball sampling
Q. 101
What is the median of the following set of scores?
18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ?
a. 10 b. 14
c. 18 d. 12
Q. 102
Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training posttest from number of years
of education and the score on an aptitude test given before training. Here is the regression equation
Y = 25 + .5X1 +10X2,
where X1 = years of education and X2 = aptitude test score.
What is the predicted score for someone with 10 years of education and a aptitude test score of 5?
a. 25 b. 50
c. 35 d. 80
Q. 103
A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a .
a. Line graph b. Bar graph
c. Scatterplot d. Vertical graph
Q. 104
The goal of is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of data.
a. Inferential statistics b. Descriptive statistics
c. None of the above d. All of the above
Q. 105
The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the .
a. Mean b. Median
c. Mode d. Range
Q. 106
As a general rule, the is the best measure of central tendency because it is more precise.
a. Mean b. Median
c. Mode d. Range
Q. 107
is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a dependent variable based on the
values of one or more independent variables.
a. Regression analysis b. Regression coefficient
c. Regression equation d. Regression line
Q. 108
The is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average.
a. Mean b. Median
c. Mode d. All of the above
Q. 109
are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables.
a. Bar graphs b. Pie graphs
c. Line graphs d. Scatterplots
Q. 110
The is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are severely skewed.
a. Mean b. Median
c. Mode d. Range
Q. 111
Which of the following is the formula for range?
a. H + L b. L x H
c. L - H d. H – L
Q. 112
Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?
a. Median b. Variance
c. Standard deviation d. Range
Q. 113
Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?
a. Mode b. Range
c. Median d. Mean
Q. 114
What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?
a. 7.5 b. 400,005.2
c. 7 d. 4
Q. 115
The median is .
a. The middle point b. The highest number
c. The average d. Affected by extreme scores
Q. 116
Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores?
a. Mean b. Median
c. Mode d. Range
Q. 117
How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression?
a. One b. One or more
c. Two or more d. Two
Q. 118
Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set of numbers
arranged in order of magnitude?
a. Mode b. Median
c. Mean d. Variance
Q. 119
If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is .
a. Negatively skewed b. Positively skewed
c. Symmetrically skewed d. Symmetrical
Q. 120
In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?
a. Mutually exclusive b. Exhaustive
c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B
Q. 121
If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the mean for each of the samples, and constructed a line graph (showing the shape of the distribution) based on all of those means, what would you have?
a. A population distribution b. A sample distribution
c. A sampling distribution d. A parameter distribution
Q. 122
What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?
a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long run
b. You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter
c. You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population parameter
d. All of the above statements are true
Q. 123
What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?
a. Sampling error b. Sample error
c. Standard error d. Simple error
Q. 124
A is a subset of a .
a. Sample, population b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter d. Parameter, statistic
Q. 125
A is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a is a numerical characteristic of a population.
a. Sample, population b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter d. Parameter, statistic
Q. 126
A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following?
a. Sample means
b. Sample correlations
c. Sample proportions
d. All of the above
Q. 127
As a general rule, researchers tend to use percent confidence intervals.
a. 99% b. 95%
c. 50% d. none of the above
Q. 128
Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or she is engaging in hypothesis testing?
a. The alternative hypothesis
b. The null hypothesis
c. Both the alternative and null hypothesis
d. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis
Q. 129
are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.
a. Confidence intervals b. Confidence limits
c. Levels of confidence d. Margin of error
Q. 130
results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false.
a. Type I error b. Type II error
c. Type III error d. Type IV error
Q. 131
A good way to get a small standard error is to use a .
a. Repeated sampling b. Small sample
c. Large sample d. Large population
Q. 132
A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is statistically significant is
called the .
a. One-way analysis of variance b. t-test for independent samples
c. Chi-square test for contingency tables d. t-test for correlation coefficients
Q. 133
The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the:
a. Significance level b. Alpha level
c. Probability value d. Both a and b are correct
Q. 134
Which percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least precise) for a particular data set
that includes exactly 500 cases?
a. 99% b. 95%
c. 90% d. None of the above
Q. 135
As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals?
a. They become more precise b. They become more narrow
c. They become wider d. Both a and b
Q. 136
is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.
a. Type I error b. Type II error
c. Type A error d. Type B error
Q. 137
Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis testing?
a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
b. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
c. When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
d. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejected
e. Both b and c are true
Q. 138
What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation?
a. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population parameter?
b. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of normal distribution?
c. Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null hypothesis?
d. There is no key question in statistical estimation
Q. 139
When a citation includes more than authors, only the surname of the first author is cited followed by et al.
a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 6
Q. 140
It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
a. Introduction b. Method
c. Results d. Discussion
Q. 141
Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and participants did during the research study?
a. Introduction b. Abstract
c. Procedure d. Design
Q. 142
The act of finding something natural for the first time is -------------------------.
a) Invention b) Discovery
c) Innovation d) None of these
Q. 143
To devise, fabricate or create an original item for the first time is called as -------------------------.
a) Invention b) Discovery
c) Innovation d) None of these
Q. 144
An improvement or update to an existing discovery or invention is -------------------------.
a) Modification b) Research design
c) Innovation d) None of these
Q. 145
Research that advances knowledge of the fundamental of how the social world works and develops
general theoretical explanation is -------------------------.
a) Basic Research b) Applied research
c) Scientific research d) Social research
Q. 146
The research that attempts to solve a concrete problem or address a specific policy question and
that has a direct, practical application is -------------------------.
a) Applied research b) Basic research
c) Scientific research d) None of these
Q. 147
Initial stage of any research is -------------------------.
a) Experimental work b) Literature survey
c) Analysis d) Compilation of data
Q. 148
Thesis, book and paper are the right ways for ------------------------- of knowledge.
a) Creation b) Preservation
c) Dissemination d) None of these
Q. 149
In general, which of the following statements is FALSE?
a) The sample mean is more sensitive to extreme values than the median
b) The sample range is more sensitive to extreme values than the standard deviation
c) The sample standard deviation is a measure of spread around the sample mean
d) The sample standard deviation is a measure of central tendency around the
median
Q. 150
Which of the following is not true for sample mode
a) Mode is the most frequently occurring observation.
b) It may or may not exists
c) It may not be unique
d) It is the maximum frequency in the frequency distribution of data
Q. 151
Which one of these statistics is unaffected by outliers?
a) Mean b) Interquartile range
c) Standard deviation d) Range
Q. 152
The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the
a) Mean c) Mode
b) Median d) Range
Q. 153
Which one of the following sets is the measure of central tendency?
a) Mean, standard deviation, mode
b) Mean, median, standard deviation
c) Arithmetic mean, median, mode
d) Standard deviation, internal validity, mode
Q. 154
The extreme values in a negatively skewed distribution lie in the
a) Middle b) Right tail
c) Left tail d) Whole curve
Q. 155
What is median of sample 5, 5, 11, 9, 8, 5, 8
a) 5 b) 6
c) 8 d) 9
Q. 156
If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is
a) Negatively skewed
c) Symmetrically skewed
b) Positively skewed
d) Symmetrical
Q. 157
The range of group of numbers -10, -8,1, 11, 19 is
a) 1 c) 24
b) 2.6 d) 29
Q. 158
The middle value of the ordered series is called
a) 2nd Quartile c) 5th Decile
b) 50th Percentile d) All of the above
Q. 159
The numerical value of the standard deviation can never be
a) larger than the variance c) zero
b) negative d) smaller than the variance
Q. 160
For comparison of two different series, the best measure of dispersion is
a) Range c) Variance
b) Standard Deviation d) Coefficient of Variation
Q. 161
What percentage of values is greater than 3rd quartile?
a) 75% b) 50% c) 25% d) 0%
Q. 162
The standard deviation of 10 measurements of people's height (in inches) iscomputed to be 25. The
variance of these measurements is
a) 5 b) 100 c) 9:√<= d) 625
Q. 163
Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?
a) Median c) Variance
b) Standard deviation d) Range
Q. 164
When data are positively skewed, the mean will usually be
a) greater than the median c) smaller than the median
b) equal to the median d) positive
Q. 165
Since the population size is always larger than the sample size, then the sample
statistic
a) Can never be larger than the population parameter
b) Can never be equal to the population parameter
c) Can be smaller, larger, or equal to the population parameter
d) Can never be smaller than the population parameter
Q. 166
The difference between the largest and the smallest data values is the
a) Variance c) inter-quartile range
b) Range d) coefficient of variation
Q. 167
If a teacher is trying to prove that new method of teaching math is more effective than traditional
one, he/she will conduct a:
a) one-tailed test
b) two-tailed test
c) point estimate of the population parameter
d) confidence interval
Q. 168
A type I error occurs when:
a) the null hypothesis is incorrectly accepted when it is false
b) the null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected when it is true
c) the sample mean differs from the population mean
d) the test is biased
Q. 169
The 75th percentile is referred to as the
a) first quartile c) second quartile
b) third quartile d) fourth quartile
Q. 170
Approximately what percentage of scores falls within two standard deviation of the mean in a
normal distribution?
a) 34% b) 95% c) 99% d) 68%
Q. 171
The summary of hourly wages of a sample of 130 system analysts are given below.
mean = 60 range = 20 mode = 73 variance = 324 median = 74
The coefficient of variation equals
a ) 0.30% b) 30% c) 5.4% d) 54%
Q. 172
The standard deviation is
a ) The square root of variance
b) A measure of variability
c) An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from mean
d) All the above
Q. 173
Approximately what percentage of scores falls within one standard deviation of the mean in a
normal distribution?
a) 34 % c) 95 %
b) 99 % d) 68 %
Q. 174
This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter.
a) Standard error b) Sampling error
c) Difference error d) None of the above
Q. 175
A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as sample mean, isknown as a
a) Population parameter c) sample parameter
b) sample statistic d) population mean
Q. 176
Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?
a) S b) σ c) r d) A
Q. 177
In statistical estimation, more precise estimate is obtained when
a) The sample size is small b) The data are less variable
c) The standard error is high d) All the above
Q. 178
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) In a symmetric distribution, the mean and the median are equal
b) The first quartile is equal to the twenty-fifth percentile
c) In a symmetric distribution, the median is halfway between the first and thethird quartiles
d) The median is always greater than the mean
Q. 179
Which of the following is a numerical characteristic of sample?
a) Population b) Parameter c) Statistic d) None of these
Q. 180
If two groups of numbers have the same mean, then
a) their standard deviations must also be equal
b) their medians must also be equal
c) their modes must also be equal
d) None of these alternatives is correct
Q. 181
A multiple regression model has the form: y = 2 + 3x1 + 4x2. As x1 increases by 1 unit(holding x2
constant), y will
a) increase by 3 units c) increase by 4 units
b) decrease by 3 units d) decrease by 3 units
Q. 182
A pharmaceutical company claims that its weight loss drug allows women to lose 8.5lb after one
month of treatment. If we want to conduct an experiment to determine ifthe patients are losing
less weight than advertised, which of the followinghypotheses should be used?
a) D= : F = 8.5; DI : F > 8.5
b) D= : F = 8.5; DI : F ≠ 8.5
c) D= : F = 8.5; DI : F < 8.5
d) D= : F ≠ 8.5; DI : F < 8.5
Q. 183
The multiple correlation coefficient of determination is computed by
a) dividing SSR by SST c) dividing SST by SSR
b) dividing SST by SSE d) None of the these
Q. 184
Which of the following is not a required assumption for the ANOVA?
a) The random variable of interest for each population has normal distribution
b) The variance associated with the random variable must be the same for eachpopulation
c) At least 3 populations under consideration
d) All of the above are required assumptions
Q. 185
25 children are chosen randomly from a school playground. Their weights are measured when
they first come into school the next morning, and again just before they go home that same
evening. What statistical test could be used to test the hypothesis that their morning weights
are no different from their evening weights?
a) Z-test b) paired t-test c) regression d) F-test
Q. 186
200 students were tested on their relationship skills before undertaking a personal
development session, after which they were tested again. Which statistical test is most
relevant to determining whether the personal development course had a significant effect?
a) independent t test b) Wilcoxon
c) Mann-Whitney d) paired samples t test
Q. 187
One-way ANOVA is used when:
a) analyzing the difference between more than two population means
b) analyzing the results of a two-tailed test
c) analyzing the results from a large sample
d) analyzing the difference between two population means
Q. 188
A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as
a) One-way analysis of variance
b) Z-test
c) t-test for correlation
coefficients
d) Simple regression
Q. 189
You would use the paired t test when:
a) you are using a two-tail hypothesis
b) you are comparing one group in a before-and-after situation using scale data
c) you are comparing one group in a before-and-after situation using ranked data
d) you are comparing two groups that are normally distributed using scale data
Q. 190
To test the hypothesis D= : F< = F9 = … = FN one can apply:
a) Regression analysis c) t-test
b) Analysis of variance d) chi-square test
Q. 191
As a general rule, researchers tend to use percent confidence intervals.
a) 99% b) 95% c) 50% d) none of these
Q. 192
An example of a two-tailed alternative hypothesis is:
a) H1: µ < 0 b) H1: µ = 0 c) H1: µ ≠ 0 d) H1: µ > 0
Q. 193
A type II error occurs when:
a) the null hypothesis is incorrectly accepted when it is false
b) the null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected when it is true
c) the sample mean differs from the population mean
d) the test is biased
Q. 194
What does the probability of “rejecting null hypothesis when it is true’’ called?
a) Type-I error c) Type-II error
b) Level of confidence d) Power of the test
Q. 195
The probability of making a Type I error is denoted by
a) α c) 1 - α
b) β d) 1 - β
Q. 196
When the p-value is used for hypothesis testing, the null hypothesis is rejected if
a) p-value ≤ α
b) α< p-value
c) p-value ≥ α
d) p-value = α
Q. 197
Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?
a) The coin is not fair
b) There is a correlation in the population
c) There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
d) The defendant is guilty
Q. 198
The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the:
a) Significance level b) Alpha level
c) Probability value d) Both a and b are correct
Q. 199
The form of the alternative hypothesis can be:
a) one-tailed
b) two-tailed
c) neither one nor two-tailed
d) one or two-tailed
Q. 200
Which of the following values is not typically used for α ?
a) 0.01 c) 0.10
b) 0.05 d) 0.25
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